Kerala PSC Assistant Engineer (Civil)-Local Self Government/PWD/Irrigation (130/2015) Mock Test

The maximum mark of the exam is 92. Each question carries a +1 mark and there is a negative marking of 1/3 for every wrong answer. The duration of the exam is 75 minutes. After this time your attended Exam answers submitted automatically whether you’re finished or not. The countdown timer in the top of the screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.

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The duration of the exam is 75 minutes.

Assistant Engineer (civil) 130/2015

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1. Stainless steel is an alloy of which among the following?

A) copper, tin and zinc

B) manganese, copper and iron

C) chromium, nickel and iron

D) copper, carbon and iron

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2. What is determined by conducting an abrasion test?

A) aggregate crushing value

B) soundness

C) hardness

D) toughness

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3. On which of the following, the support for Dat slab is provide?

A) beams

B) beams built monolithically above walls

C) walls

D) columns built monolithically with slab

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4. What is the width of Broad Gauge?

A) 1.565 m

B) 1.675 m

C) 1.576 m

D) 1.676 m

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5. Among which of the following conditions a T-beam becomes identical to a rectangular beam with width equal to that of flange?

A) neutral axis remains within flange

B) none of these

C) neutral axis coinsides with geometrical centre of beam

D) neutral axis remains within web

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6. Which among the following is a step used for changing the direction of a stair?

A) nosing

B) winder

C) flight

D) landing

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7. By which of the following tests, fineness of cement can be determined?

A) compression test

B) permeability test

C) vicat apparatus test

D) soundness test

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8. Among the following, in which type of canal, flow occurs only when there is a rise of flow in river?

A) contour canal

B) ridge canal

C) side slope canal

D) inundation canal

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9. What is defined as the ratio of volume of air voids to the total volume of soil mass and is expressed as percentage?

A) porosity

B) percentage air voids

C) air content

D) void ratio

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10. What is the side slope of a Cipoletti weir?

A) 2 horizontal to 1 vertical

B) 1 horizontal to 2 vertical

C) 1 horizontal to 4 vertical

D) 4 horizontal to 1 vertical

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11. How the temporary hardness of water is removed?

A) by zeolite process

B) by lime soda process

C) by boiling

D) by aeration

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12. In which of the following types of concrete beam section, failure will occur all on a sudden?

A) singly reinforced beam

B) under reinforced section

C) balanced section

D) over reinforced section

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13. In which condition a doubly reinforced beam is used?

A) when depth is more than 1m

B) when large moment is expected

C) when depth and breadth of beam have to be restricted in size

D) when extra safety is needed

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14. In a water supply scheme, for what purpose aeration is carried out?

A) for complete elimination of colloidal matter

B) for coagulation

C) for killing pathogenic bacteria

D) to remove taste and odour

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15. What is the disadvantage of centrifugal pump compared with reciprocating pump?

A) low speed

B) pulsatory flow

C) priming required

D) difficult to handle viscous fluid

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16. What is known as the force per unit area required to penetrate into a soil mass with a
circular plunger of 50 mm diameter at a rate of 1.25 mm/minute?

A) bearing capacity

B) CBR

C) modulus of rupture

D) aggregate crushing value

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17. What is floor area ratio?

A) ratio of plinth area to plot area

B) ratio of ground floor area to plot area

C) ratio of total floor area on all floors to plinth area

D) ratio of total floor area on all floors to plot area

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18. What is azimuth?

A) none of these

B) magnetic meridian

C) arbitrary meridian

D) true meridian

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19. What will be the hydraulic mean depth for a most economical rectangular section of an open
channel, of width B and depth D?

A) 2D

B) BD³/12

C) D/2

D) BD²/6

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20. At any point on the magnetic equator what will be the angle of dip?

A) 90°

B) 0°

C) 100°

D) 180°

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21. What is the area of building, excluding the area occupied by walls?

A) net area

B) plinth area

C) carpet area

D) floor area

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22. In the case of open channel flow if the flow is laminar, which of the following is correct?

A) Reynolds number > 4000

B) Reynolds number < 2000

C) Reynolds number < 500

D) Reynolds number > 500

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23. Name the ratio of power available at the shaft of a turbine to the power delivered by water to the runner.

A) overall efficiency

B) hydraulic efficiency

C) mechanical efficiency

D) volumetric efficiency

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24. What is meant by cambium layer of an exogeneous tree?

A) outermost layer of the tree

B) layer between inner bark and sap wood

C) zone of inner rings surround the pith

D) layer between pith and heart wood

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25. What is the difference between two measured values of same quantity in surveying?

A) discrepancy

B) intentional error

C) variation

D) balancing error

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26. A wooden pile is being driven with a drop hammer weighing 18 kN and having a free fall of
1m. The penetration in the last blow is 5 mm. Determine the load carrying capacity of pile
according to the Engineering News formula:

A) 180 kN

B) 90 kN

C) 100 kN

D) 110 kN

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27. A jet of water, of cross sectional area 0.005 m² strikes a flat plate normally with a velocity of
15 m/s. If the plate is moving with a velocity of 5 m/s in the direction of jet and away from the
jet, what is the force exerted by the jet on the plate?

A) 0.25 N

B) 0.50N

C) 500 N

D) 250 N

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28. Dry density of which sample is expected to be high?

A) organic clay

B) stiff clay

C) dense sand

D) bentonite

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29. Which among the following is the great circle, formed by a plane through the observor's
position that is perpendicular to the direction of gravity at that point intercepts the celestial
sphere?

A) hour circle

B) horizon

C) observor's meridian

D) ecliptie

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30. What is known as a watertight enclosure made up of sheet pile walls, usually temporary,
built around a working area for the purpose of excluding water during construction?

A) box caisson

B) cofferdam

C) penstock

D) bulkhead

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31. What is meant by Froude's number?

A) ratio of inertia force and viscous force

B) ratio of square root of inertia force and gravity force

C) ratio of square root of inertia force and pressure force

D) ratio of inertia force and pressure force

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32. Among which of the following conditions, Darcy's Law is not applicable to seepage of soils?

A) the soil is incompressible under stress

B) the flow conditions are turbulant in soil

C) the soil is isotropic

D) soil is homogeneous

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33. Which of the following is a field test?

A) unconfined compression test

B) triaxial compression test

C) vane shear test

D) direct shear test

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34. For what type of soil unconfined compression test is generally applicable?

A) silt

B) sand

C) poorly graded sandy silt

D) saturated clay

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35. Which of the following will have a plasticity index 20?

A) sand

B) compacted sand

C) silt

D) clay

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36. What is a protective barrier constructed to enclose harbours, and to keep the harbour waters
undisturbed by the effect of heavy and strong seas?

A) break water

B) entrance lock

C) shaft

D) dock

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37. Determine the total pressure on a circular plate of area of cross section 1m² which is placed
vertically in water in such a way that the centre of the plate is 1 m below the free surface of water.

A) 9.81 N

B) 9810 N

C) 98.1 N

D) 981 N

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38. Among which of the following tests conducted for measurement of shear strength of soil, no
excess pore pressure is set up at any stage of the test?

A) consolidated undrained test

B) undrained test

C) quick test

D) drained test

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39. Which of the following laws gives the diameter of a sphere which will settle at a specific terminal velocity?

A) Gay-Lussac's Law

B) Darcy's Law

C) Stoke's Law

D) Hooke's Law

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40. What is meant by optimum water content?

A) water content corresponding to maximum dry density

B) water content corresponding to zero air voids

C) water content corresponding to minimum dry density

D) water content corresponding to field density

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41. What is the function of a fish plate?

A) to hold two rails together

B) for fixing wooden sleepers to rail

C) for fastening chairs to sleepers

D) for fixing rails to sleepers

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42. Which among the following is pressure on a fluid below atmospheric pressure?

A) absolute pressure

B) none of these

C) gauge pressure

D) vacuum pressure

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43. Which of the following is the unit of coefficient of consolidation?

A) m²/kN

B) none of these

C) cm/sec

D) cm²/sec

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44. A simply supported beam of span 7 m has a point load of 3 kN at a distance of 2 m from left
end A and a point load of 2 kN at a distance of 4 m from left end A. What will be the support
reaction at B?

A) 2.5 kN

B) 3 kN

C) 19/7 kN

D) 2 kN

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45. Soils with a value of k (coefficient of permeability) ranging from 10^-5 mm/sec to 10^-3mm/sec
can be classified as:

A) pervious

B) semi pervious

C) aquiclude

D) impervious

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46. Which of the following soil samples will have grains of almost same particle size?

A) good graded

B) gap graded

C) poorly graded

D) well graded

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47. Which among the following is the term used for change in volume of soil per unit of initial
volume due to a given unit increase in pressure?

A) coefficient of settlement

B) coefficient of compressibility

C) swelling index

D) coefficient of volume change

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48. Which of the following values, the voids ratio in soil can have theoretically?

A) <1 only

B) >1 only

C) <0.5

D) can be less than or more than 1

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49. For what purpose stiffeners are used in a plate girder?

A) to connect the flange plates to the web

B) to provide web splice

C) to provide splice for Flange plates and cover plates

D) to prevent buckling of web

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50. Which of the following is a clayey soil that has never been subjected to an effective pressure
greater than existing overburden pressure and which is also completely consolidated by the
existing overburden pressure?

A) pre- consolidated soil

B) over consolidated soil

C) normally consolidated soil

D) under- consolidated soil

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51. By which simple equation the hydrologic cycle may be expressed?

A) Precipitation = Evaporation - Run off

B) Precipitation = Evaporation + Run off

C) Run off= Precipitation + Evaporation

D) Evaporation = Precipitation + Run off

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52. What is an impermeable formation which contain water but are not capable of transmitting or supplying a sufficient quantity?

A) aquifer

B) aquifuge

C) aquiclude

D) perched aquifer

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53. Coefficient of permeability is inversely proportional to which of the following?

A) void ratio

B) effective diameter

C) viscosity

D) unit weight of water

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54. If an auditorium has a total surface area of plaster, floor, curtains and seats equal to 160 m²
and volume of auditorium is 5000 m³, what is time of reverberation in seconds according to
Sabin's equation?

A) 5 seconds

B) 5.12 seconds

C) 3.2 seconds

D) 8 seconds

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55. According to Indian Standards, specific gravity of soil is the ratio of unit weight of solids to that of water at a temperature of

A) 4°C

B) 36°C

C) 17°C

D) 27° C

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56. What is the term used for the degree of disturbance of undisturbed clay sample due to
remoulding expressed as ratio of unconfined compression strength in undisturbed state to
that in remoulded state, without change in water content?

A) thixotropy

B) coefficient of structural collapse

C) sensitivity

D) collapse potential

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57. Which among the following is also known as rolled steel joist?

A) rolled steel channel section

B) rolled steel angle section

C) rolled steel I section

D) rolled steel T section

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58. Name the level surface to which the elevations are referred:

A) change point

B) datum

C) bench mark

D) base line

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59. For no tension developed in a gravity dam, where the resultant of all forces on dam should
always lie?

A) within the middle third of the section

B) at top

C) near heel

D) at toe

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60. Two bodies of masses 5.5 kg and 4.3 kg are hung to the ends of rope, passing over a smooth
frictionless pulley. With what acceleration the heavier mass comes down?

A) 4.73 m/s²

B) 1.2 m/s²

C) 80 m/s²

D) 9.8 m/s²

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61. Among the following which equipment is not used in chain survey?

A) ranging rod

B) offset rod

C) alidade

D) plumb bob

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62. Name the end supports of the superstructure of a bridge:

A) wing walls

B) deckings

C) piers

D) abutments

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63. A body was thrown vertically down from a tower. What is the distance travelled by the body
in the third second of its fall, if its initial velocity was 5.5 m/sec?

A) 30 m

B) 60.60 m

C) 60 m

D) 25 m

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64. Name the structure carrying discharge of a natural stream across a canal intercepting the stream:

A) Gallery

B) Sluice

C) Cross drainage work

D) Cut off pile

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65. Which among the following is torsional rigidity?

A) product of torque and radius of shaft

B) product of rigidity modulus and polar moment of inertia

C) product of rigidity modulus and moment of inertia

D) product of rigidity modulus and angle of twist

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66. During setting and hardening of cement concrete, hydration of which among the following
contributes to the progressive strength of concrete?

A) C_2 A

B) C_2 S

C) C_3 S

D) C_4 AF

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67. What is the polar moment of inertial of a circle of diameter D?

A) πD⁴/32

B) πD⁴/64

C) πD⁴/16

D) πD⁴/128

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68. What is called, the time in hours taken by rainwater that falls at the farthest point to reach the outlet of a catchment?

A) basin lag

B) time of concentration

C) recession time

D) effective duration

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69. Name the short sections of wood or steel, which are fixed on principal rafter of trusses to support purlins:

A) eaves board

B) cleat

C) ridge piece

D) wall plate

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70. Name the area to be irrigated by a dam:

A) reservoir

B) ayacut

C) catchment area

D) upstream side

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71. Among the following methods for computing average precipitation (or rainfall) in which
method the area of the basin is not taken into account?

A) Isohyetal method

B) None of these

C) Thiesson polygon method

D) Arithmetic average method

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72. Which of the following is not included in temporary adjustments of a dumpy level?

A) setting up

B) elimination of parallax

C) centering

D) levelling up

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73. Among the following which represents the irrigating capacity of a unit of water:

A) duty

B) water application efficiency

C) consumptive use efficiency

D) delta

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74. What is the maximum size of the particle of silt?

A) 0.2 mm

B) 0.002 mm

C) 0.02 mm

D) 0.06 mm

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75. Name the well from which water flows automatically under pressure:

A) tube well

B) artesian well

C) infiltration well

D) flowing well

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76. Which among the following is the back bearing of N30°E?

A) E 30° N

B) S 150° W

C) N 150° E

D) S 30° W

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77. Among the following, by which method the efficiency of a sedimentation tank can be increased for a given discharge?

A) by decreasing the area of the tank

B) by increasing the depth of the tank

C) by increasing the area of the tank

D) by deereasing the depth of the tank

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78. If bucking of sand is not taken into account for volumetric proportioning of concrete, what will be the result?

A) no effect

B) buckling of concrete product will be the result

C) more quantity of concrete per bag of cement will be produced

D) less quantity of concrete per bag of cement will be produced

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79. In which direction, resultant force will shift by providing a top width for roadway and free
board in elementary profile of a gravity dam, for full reservoir condition?

A) shift towards heel

B) shift towards toe

C) no shift at all

D) shift towards top

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80. Two simply supported beams A and B of same width have identical loading. What is the ratio strength of of beam A / strength of beam B if beam A has depth double that of beam B?

A) 4

B) 1/2

C) 2

D) 1/4

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81. What is the least count of a transit theodolite?

A) 30 minutes

B) 20 seconds

C) 20 minutes

D) 60 seconds

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82. A steel rod of length 20 m at 30°0 is heated upto 40°C. What is the temperature stress
developed if the expansion is prevented? Given, a =12 x10^-6 per °C, E = 2x10⁵ N/mm²

A) 0.24 N/mm²

B) 240 N/mm²

C) 2.4 N/mm²

D) 24 N/mm²

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83. What will be the deflection at the centre of a simply supported beam of rectangular cross
section if the depth is doubled, for the same load W?

A) 1/4 of first case

B) 1/6 of first case

C) 1/8 of first case

D) 1/2 of first case

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84. Where is the keystone of an arch being placed?

A) extrados

B) crown

C) springing line

D) intrados

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85. What is measured using a venturimeter?

A) discharge

B) velocity

C) pressure

D) viscosity

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86. What will be the elongation of a prismatic bar of length L, cross sectional area A, hanging
vertically under its own weight W?

A) WL/2AE

B) WL/4AE

C) WL/AE

D) WL/3AE

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87. In a hydro electric scheme which of the following is used to carry water from storage reservoir to the power house?

A) penstocks

B) intake structure

C) forebay

D) draft tube

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88. What is the nominal size of standard brick?

A) 22 cm x 11.5 cm x 7.5 cm

B) 20 cm x 10 cm x 5 cm

C) 20 cm x 10 cm x 10 cm

D) 19 cm x9 cm x 9 cm

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89. What will be the elementary profile of a gravity dam?

A) rectangular in section

B) triangular in section

C) trapezoidal in section

D) polygon with six sides

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90. Where the tension steel is provided in a two way slab?

A) only.at top

B) at top and bottom

C) at corners

D) only at bottom

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91. What is a graph showing variations of discharge with time at a particular point of a stream?

A) Strange's run off curve

B) Unit hydrograph

C) Hyetograph

D) Hydrograph

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92. For a redundant frame if number of members is m and number of joints is j then which of the following relations will be satisfied?

A) m < (2j-3)

B) m > 2(j-3)

C) m < 2(j-3)

D) m > (2j-3)

Assistant Engineer (civil) 130/2015

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Kerala PSC Assistant Engineer (Civil)-Local Self Government/PWD/Irrigation (130/2015) Mock Test