Kerala PSC Assistant Manager - Kerala Financial Corporation (29/2019) Mock Test

Kerala PSC Assistant Manager – Kerala Financial Corporation (29/2019) Mock Test

The maximum mark of the exam is 98. Each question carries a +1 mark and there is a negative marking of 1/3 for every wrong answer. The duration of the exam is 75 minutes. After this time your attended Exam answers submitted automatically whether you’re finished or not. The countdown timer in the top of the screen will display the remaining time available for you to complete the examination.

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The duration of the exam is 75 minutes.

Assistant Manager (29/2019)

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1. Which of the following is the big Indian notation?

A) The higher significant bit is stored in higher address

B) The lower significant bit is stored in higher address

C) The lower significant byte is in higher address

D) The higher significant byte is in higher address

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2. What is the access type used in Read Only Memory?

A) Sequential access

B) Cyclic access

C) Random access

D) Quick access

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3. As the hit ratio of a cache system increases, the speed of the execution of the program

A) decrease

B) parabolic shape property

C) increases

D) hit ratio does not affect the speed of the execution

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4. The direct mapping of cache algorithm is not used due to the following

A) Cache replacement becomes necessary even if cache is not full

B) There exists execution overhead of the cache mapping function for all cache access

C) Does not provide improvement for overall speed of execution

D) All of these

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5. An operation on variable mark and max in C language is defined as "if(max==mark)" which logic gate can be used for this operation internally?

A) NOR gate

B) NAND gate

C) XNOR gate

D) AND gate

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6. A 4 bit count sequences is like the following

0011, 1001, 1100, 0110 and its repeats, identity the counter

A) Johnson counter

B) Root counter

C) Ring counter

D) Random counter

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7. The binary code that is used in Karnaugh maps for simplification is

A) Self complementing code

B) Gray code

C) Binary code

D) Excess 3 code

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8. For a binary number, traverse from right to left, keep the bits as such till a bit 1, negate all other bits. What will
we if we follow the algorithm?

A) binary multiplied by eight

B) n's complement where n is the number of bits

C) binary multiplied by four

D) 2's complement of the number

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9. The octal representation of the hexadecimal number 34 FC is

A) 32374

B) 15176

C) 32384

D) 15186

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10. The universal property of NAND gates find great applications in

A) IC manufacturing

B) Equation simplification

C) Results in higher packing density

D) Size reduction of circuit

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11. Which of the following is not a browser?

A) Windows Explorer

B) Google chrome

C) Mozilla Firefox

D) Mosaic

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12. The extend option available in display settings while connecting a projector to laptop indicates that

A) the projector screen should be made blank display occurs in laptop screen only

B) the same contents should be shown in both laptop screen and projector

C) the laptop screen will show some portion of the entire display and the remaining on projector screen

D) the laptop screen should be made blank and display occurs in projector screen only

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13. Which of the following is not an input device?

A) Touch screen

B) Scanner

C) Console

D) Barcode reader

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14. Which of the following is a valid screen resolution?

A) 1280 x 600

B) 1366 x 768

C) 1024 x 768

D) All of these

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15. How many printing pins are available in dot matrix printer head?

A) 24 pins

B) 16 pins

C) 9 pins

D) 32 pins

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16. The official name of a network switch is

A) Ethernet bridge

B) TCP Bridge

C) Packet bridge

D) MAC Bridge

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17. CIDR stands for

A) Classless Intra Domain Routing

B) Classless Inter-Domain Routing

C) Classful Intra Domain Routing

D) Classful Inter Domain Routing

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18. Email was first introduced by the person

A) Tim Bernes Lee

B) Emilio Larrace

C) Patrick Naughton

D) Ray Tomlinson

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19. Fusing is a process used in

A) ROM programming

B) Inkjet printing

C) Laser Printing

D) Data retrieval from damaged hard disks

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20. The connector used for connecting a cable to the computer network switch is

A) RJ 41

B) RJ 15

C) RJ 11

D) RJ 45

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21. Who among the following persons is known as 'Modern Manu'?

A) Dr. Ambedkar

B) Jawaharlal Nehru

C) Dr. Rajendra Prasad

D) M.N. Roy

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22. which article of the Indian Constitution gives the guarantee of equality of opportunity in matters of public
employment?

A) Article 30

B) Article 23

C) Article 16

D) Article 14

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23. What is the retirement age of the Supreme Court Chief Justice?

A) 64 years

B) 65 years

C) 62 years

D) 60 years

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24. What is the retention period for reply to R.T.I. (Right to Information) application?

A) 14 days

B) 90 days

C) 7 days

D) 30 days

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25. Name the first Indian state to enact the food security legislation even before the National Food security Bill of 2013

A) Nagaland

B) Chattisgarh

C) Punjab

D) Maharashtra

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26. 'The Rajyasamacharam', first malayalam news paper was published from

A) Kottayam

B) Thalassery

C) Thirur

D) Kannur

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27. Who is the founder of the 'Namboothiri Yuvajanasangham'?

A) V.T. Bhattathiripad

B) Desamangalath Sankaran Namboothiripad

C) E.M.S. Namboothiripad

D) Unni Namboothiri

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28. Who is the founder of the journal 'Abhinava Keralam' ?

A) Moorkoth Kumaran

B) K.P. Kesava Menon

C) Sahodaran Ayyappan

D) Vagbhatananda

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29. Who was the president of the Guruvayoor Satyagraha Committee?

A) Mannath Padmanabhan

B) A.K. Gopalan

C) K. Kelappan

D) Subrahmaniam Thirumumpu

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30. Who among the following poets is the court poet of Udayavarma of Kolathunadu?

A) Athula

B) Ramapurath Warrier

C) Cherusseri Namboothiripad

D) N.V. Krishna Warrier

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31. Who called Akkamma Cheriyan as the 'Jhansi Rani of Kerala'?

A) Mahatma Gandhi

B) Swami Vivekananda

C) Rabindranath Tagore

D) Subhash Chandra Bose

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32. Who called the British rule as 'White Devil Rule'

A) Vaikunda Swamikal

B) Dr. Palpu

C) Mannath Padmanabhan

D) Pampadi John Joseph

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33. Who is the author of the book, 'Treatment of Thiyyas in Travancore?

A) Dr. Sugathan

B) John Munro

C) Itty Achuthan

D) Dr. Palpu

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34. Who is known as 'Kerala Lincoln'?

A) K.P. Karuppan

B) M.C. Joseph

C) C. Krishnan

D) Vakkom Abdul Khadar Moulavi

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35. Who is the first Jnanpith Award winner, the highest Indian Literary honour?

A) M.T. Vasudevan Nair

B) G. Sankara Kurup

C) S.K. Pottakkad

D) O.N.V. Kurup

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36. Name the operation carried out for the liberation of Goa in 1961

A) Operation Meghadoot

B) Operation Shakti

C) Operation Vijay

D) Operation Blue star

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37. The Palaruvi waterfall is in which district of Kerala?

A) Thiruvananthapuram

B) Kollam

C) Ernakulam

D) Wayanad

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38. The NITI Aayog, replacing the National planning commission was formed in

A) 2017

B) 2016

C) 2015

D) 2014

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39. Which of the following nation conducted the 'Miss Camel' contest, world's largest camel beauty contest?

A) Oman

B) Yemen

C) Saudi Arabia

D) Iraq

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40. Which of the following is not an objective of Discount and Finance House of India (DFHI)?

A) Engaged in stock broking activities

B) Stimulate Activity in Money Market Instruments

C) Participates in Call and Short Notice Markets

D) Deals in Treasury Bills, Certificate of Deposits and Commercial papers

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41. The minimum denomination for a Certificate of Deposit is

A) Rs. 50,000

B) Rs. 25,000

C) Rs. 10,000

D) Rs. 1,00,000

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42. What are Stalwarts?

A) Shares with stable market prices

B) Shares of companies with growth rate greater that the growth rate of GDP of the country

C) Shares with good track record of earnings and dividend payouts

D) Shares that are highly volatile

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43. Which of the following is not a method of Selective Credit Control by Reserve Bank of India?

A) Open market Operation

B) Issuing directives

C) Differential Rates of Interest

D) Restriction on Clean Advances

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44. Expand MIGA

A) Multilateral Income Generating Agreement

B) Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency

C) Multicurrency Investment Generating Agency

D) Multinational Income Guarantee Agreement

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45. Which of the following is not a Counter Trade in Foreign Trade Transactions?

A) Compensation

B) Forfeiting

C) Counter purchase

D) Barter

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46. hat are the three basic theories of International business?

A) The theory of Comparative Advantage, The Imperfect Market Theory and Product Life Cycle Theory

B) The Theory of Competitive Advantage, The Compensation Theory and Brand Life Cycle Theory

C) None of these

D) The Theory of Marginal Advantage, The Perfect Market Theory and Theory of Business Cycles

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47. Which of the following is an exchange rate system?

A) Pegged

B) Freely floating

C) All of these

D) Fixed

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48. Comparative Cost Advantage Theory was propounded by

A) Alfred Marshal

B) David Ricardo

C) Joel Dean

D) Adam Smith

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49. Research studies with an objective to portray accurately the characteristics of a particular individual, situation or group is known as

A) Diagnostic Research

B) Hypothesis Testing Research

C) Descriptive Research

D) Exploratory Research

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50. systematic Sampling is a method of

A) Judgement Sampling

B) Non-random Sampling

C) None of these

D) Probability Sampling

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51. The basic principles of Experimental Research Designs are enumerated by

A) Thomas Bayes

B) Horace secrist

C) Spencer and Seligman

D) R.A. Fisher

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52. Interval scales have the mathematical properties of

A) Order, Distance and Absolute zero

B) Order only

C) None of these

D) Order and Distance only

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53. Observation Method is a method of collecting

A) Secondary Data

B) Panel Data

C) Primary Data

D) Time Series Data

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54. Pantry Audit is associated with

A) Auditing of Pantry Records

B) A Method of Data Collection

C) An Auditing Technique

D) None of these

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55. Standard Error is

A) Sampling Error

B) -Average

C) None of these

D) Standard Deviation

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56. Which Committee is known as "Committee on Banking Sector Reforms"?

A) Narashimham Committee II

B) Malhothra Committee

C) Rangarajan Committee

D) Gadgil Committee

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57. The provision requirement for Non performing Assets that are classified as Loss Assets is

A) 0.25%

B) 15%

C) 40%

D) 100%

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58. Parallel Loan is a technique used for hedging

A) Translation Exposure

B) None of these

C) Transaction Exposure

D) Economic Exposure

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59. A distribution having a relatively high peak is called

A) Mesokurtic

B) None of these

C) Platykurtic

D) Leptokurtic

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60. In India, the National Income estimation is the responsibility of

A) Central Statistical Organisation

B) Ministry of Commerce and Industry

C) National Sample Survey Organisation

D) NITI Ayog

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61. Power of a hypothesis test is the probability of

A) Not committing a type II error

B) Committing a type II error

C) Not committing a type I error

D) Committing a type I error

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62. The N.K Singh Committee (FRBM Review Committee) on fiscal discipline recommended the central government to reduce its fiscal deficit to ___ by 2023.

A) 3.0%

B) 2.2%

C) 2.8%

D) 2.5%

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63. Which among the following is NOT a correct interpretation of the p-value?

A) -A large p-value indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis

B) A small p-value indicates strong evidence against the null hypothesis

C) The p-value is a number between 0 and 1

D) p-values very close to the cutoff are considered to be marginal and could go either way

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64. Personal income includes

A) Corporate taxes

B) Social security contributions

C) Transfer payments

D) Undistributed corporate profits

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65. In a moderately symmetrical distribution, quartile deviation equals

A) 0.6745 standard deviation

B) 0.7979 mean deviation

C) 0.6745 mean deviation

D) 0.7979 standard deviation

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66. "NNP_(FC)" equals

A) "GNP_(MP) Consumption of fixed capital - net indirect taxes net factor income from abroad

B) "GDP_{MP}" - Consumption of fixed capital - net indirect taxes + net factor income from abroad

C) "GDP_(MP)" - Consumption of fixed capital + net indirect taxes- net factor income from abroad

D) "GDP_(MP)" Consumption of fixed capital - net indirect taxes

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67. Match the following:

i. Chelliah Committee

ii. Vijay Kelkar Committee

iii. LK jha committee

iv. Constitution (115th Amendment) Bill

a. Introduction of value added tax (VAT) in India

b. Introduction of GST

c. Reducing the cost of imported inputs

d. Empower CBDT with appropriate
administrative and financial powers

A) i-b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a

B) i-c, ii-d, iii-a, iv-b

C) i-d, ii-c, iii-b, iv-a

D) i-c, ii-b, iii-a, iv-d

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68. Which among the following is NOT a property of statistical variance?

A) The variance is independent of the change of scale

B) The variance is independent of change of origin

C) Zero variance indicates that all the values are equal in the distribution

D) The value of variance is always positive

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69. Net economic welfare is derived from the real GNP by deducting the following components except

A) Depreciation

B) Value of non-market activities

C) Environmental pollution

D) Regrettable costs

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70. Choose the correct statement/s about normal distribution

A) For normal distribution, mean = median = mode

B) All of these

C) It is commonly known as the bell curve

D) It is a continuous distribution of data

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71. Arrange the following sectors in the correct descending order of their contribution to Gross value Added of India during 2016-17 at constant prices:

i. Construction
ii. Manufacturing
iii. Agriculture, Forestry and Fishing
iv. Trade, hotel, Communication and services related to broadcasting

A) iv-ii-iii-i

B) iii-iv-i-ii

C) iv-iii-ii-i

D) ii-iv-i-iii

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72. The value of national output with a constant price level and adjusting the inflation rate is

A) Price index

B) Nominal GDP

C) Real GDP

D) Per capital income

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73. Identify the correct statement related to Goods and Services Tax Bill

A) All of these

B) The 2014 bill modified and updated the 2011 bill provision that imposed certain restrictions on the states on taxation of the products that are important for inter-state commerce and trade

C) Entertainment tax, entry tax, purchases tax, central sales tax, VAT, etc. would be replaced by Central Tax GST

D) Surcharge on supply of goods, cesses, special ad-on duty of customs, add-on duties of customs and excise and central excise duty would be replaced by Central Taxes GST

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74. Net factor income earned from abroad includes the following component/s

A) Net retained earnings of the resident companies working in foreign countries

B) All of these

C) Net income from property

D) Net compensation of employees

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75. The statistical test used to determine whether two population means are different when the variances are
known and the sample size is large is called

A) One tailed test

B) z-test

C) Chi square test

D) None of these

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76. Consider the following statements related to incidence of a tax

Statement l: The incidence of a unit tax on the buyers will be less than the amount of the
tax when the commodity is being produced under increasing cost conditions.

Statement II: The incidence of tax on the buyers will be greater than the tax when the
commodity is being produced under decreasing cost conditions.

A) Statement II alone is correct

B) Statement I and II are correct

C) Statement I and II are incorrect

D) Statement I alone is correct

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77. Identify the wrong criteria for the distribution of plan assistance according to Gadgil formula

A) Tax efforts- 7%

B) Per capita state income - 25%

C) Population -60%

D) Special problems of individual states-7.5%

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78. In the simple linear regression model 'y = alpha + beta x + epsi' , the structural parameter is

A) 'beta'

B) 'y'

C) 'X'

D) 'epsi'

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79. If fixed cost is Rs. 6,000, selling price is Rs. 5 per unit and variable cost is Rs. 2 per unit, the break-even point
shall be _____.

A) 1000 units

B) 2000 units

C) 2500 units

D) 500 units

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80. _____ is the amount at any given volume of output by which aggregate costs are changed if the volume
of output is increased or decreased by one unit.

A) Average cost

B) Imputed cost

C) Differential cost

D) Marginal cost

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81. Angle of incidence is _____.

A) Angle between variable cost line and fixed cost line

B) -Angle between fixed cost line and total sales line

C) Angle between total sales line and total cost line

D) Angle between total cost line and variable cost line

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82. Which of the following is not true?

A) Fixed Cost = Contribution + Profit

B) Variable Cost = Sales - Contribution

C) Contribution = Fixed Cost + Profit

D) Profit = Contribution - Fixed cost

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83. If profit is Rs. 8,000, selling price per unit is Rs. 10 and variable cost per unit is Rs. 6, margin of safety shall be _____.

A) Rs. 4,800

B) Rs. 20,000

C) Rs. 13,333

D) Rs. 3,200

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84. If sales revenue is Rs. 1,00.000, profit is Rs. 20,000 and PV ratio is 40%, the BEP shall be ___.

A) Rs.8,000

B) Rs. 50,000

C) Rs. 24,000

D) Rs. 40,000

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85. ____ is concerned with probable events likely to happen under anticipated conditions during a specified period of time

A) Budget

B) Forecast

C) All of these

D) Estimate

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86. Flexible budget is ____.

A) Dynamic budget

B) Variable budget

C) All of these

D) Sliding scale budget

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87. The budget that summarises and integrates all the individual budgets within an organisation, is called as ____.

A) Summarised budget

B) All of these

C) Master budget

D) Operating budget

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88. Static budget is also called as ____.

A) Fixed budget

B) Functional budget

C) Flexible budget

D) Master budget

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89. Who is the father zero-based budgeting?

A) James Wilson

B) Peter Pyhrr

C) Eugene Fama

D) Jimmy Carter

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90. ______ is the practice of preparing the budget based on evaluation of productivity of different operations in an organisation.

A) Activity-based budgeting

B) Conventional budgeting

C) Performance budgeting

D) Zero-based budgeting

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91. If interest rate offered on an investment is 10% per annum and interest is payable half yearly. the effective rate of interest will be _____.

A) 10.10% per annum

B) 10.25% per annum

C) 10.50% per annum

D) 10.38% per annum

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92. The proposals which compete each other are called as _____.

A) Contingent proposals

B) Mutually exclusive proposals

C) Independent proposals

D) Dependent proposals

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93. ______ is the factor in the activities of an undertaking which at a particular point in time or over a period will limit the volume of output.

A) Governing factor

B) All of these

C) Limiting factor

D) Key factor

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94. _____ refers to a situation where a firm is not in a position to invest in all profitable projects due to the
constraints on availability of funds.

A) Capital rationing

B) Investment decision making

C) Capital expenditure decision

D) Capital budgeting

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95. ____ is the ratio establishes relationship between present value of cash inflows and present value of cash outflows.

A) Internal Rate of Return

B) Net Present Value

C) Profitability Index

D) Net Terminal Value

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96. The length of time required to recover the initial investment is called as _____.

A) Pay back period

B) Replacement period

C) All of these

D) Pay-off period

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97. Benefit cost ratio is called as ____.

A) Desirability factor

B) Accounting Rate of Return

C) All of these

D) Average Rate of Return

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98. Return in ARR method refers to _____.

A) Earnings before depreciation and before tax

B) Earnings after depreciation and after tax

C) Earnings after depreciation but before tax

D) Earnings after tax but before depreciation

Assistant Manager (29/2019)

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Kerala PSC Assistant Manager – Kerala Financial Corporation (29/2019) Mock Test